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I have been in talks with a company for about a month and a half. Finally, after my third interview, I was given a verbal offer, details about the internships (and how it would lead to a full time gig in 2 months if I do well), my pay, schedule.

But I have not received a written formal offer, is this okay?

From my perspective, their culture is very honest and relaxed, which is my assumption of a lack of an "official" offer letter. It seems like they are getting ready for me to transition in, they asked if I wanted a PC or Mac for usage, and sent me an email to get familiar with the programming languages they use. (it's a web developer internship)

I'm starting two weeks from today, 4/10.

This is my first time actually getting offered an internship. I'm assuming that the first week will take care of all the logistics.

  • I was also verbally offered a job. The hiring manager basically told me she's pushing the HR to get the process going. Guess what? Two weeks later, she told me the position is not available anymore. Luckily I had another offer on hand. Minutes hearing the news, I accepted the other offer. So no, no written offer === no real offer. Keep searching. – Alic Mar 31 '17 at 22:00
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Legally, in many places in the world, a verbal contract is just as binding as a written one - except for the small problem that it is hard to prove that the verbal contract exists, and hard to prove what the terms are. So you don't have that job guaranteed yet.

I would recommend calling their HR and say something like "Hi, this is Paul, I'm starting my internship on the tenth, but I haven't received my written contract yet". There are two possibilities: Either this HR person says "Sorry, but I'm not aware of anyone starting an internship on the tenth", and that's the starting point of sorting it out. Or the HR person says: "Don't worry, I have everything prepared here and you'll sign on the tenth".

If there was some misunderstanding, then now may still be time to sort it out; ten days from now might be too late.

  • But if they have "everything sorted," why would they object to proving it? – WGroleau Apr 11 '17 at 12:28

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