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Apr 3, 2019 at 21:02 comment added d-b @UKMonkey I have the same question. Can you give an example court case that supports your claim?
Apr 3, 2019 at 14:58 comment added UKMonkey @d-b I'll leave you to re-read my comment again.
Apr 3, 2019 at 14:56 comment added d-b @UKMonkey Can you refer a case where someone was convicted for defamation for something he/she said to a couple of "generic" friends (that is, if you are member of a club and tell three members, that happens to be your friends too, something about a fourth member of that club - the friends are not "generic" but "club related" or something like that)? I don't believe it works like that.
Apr 3, 2019 at 13:43 comment added UKMonkey @d-b nope. As stated "unless disclosing it is required or can be shown to be justified under the circumstances" the definition of justified here is very loose; and for your example, talking to your partner about pretty much anything I would say is justified.
Apr 3, 2019 at 8:58 comment added user @d-b "received large distribution" is one of the criteria that can be used to determine if the stronger form of the crime is applicable. (Sorry, I can't think of the proper English legal term at the moment.) I would imagine that something being told to a large fraction of employers in a reasonable locale would likely qualify. Either way, a lawyer specializing in this would be able to give an informed opinion about whether it's prosecutable, but the statement by the lawyer OP talked to that the boss "is just exercising his freedom of speech" doesn't hold water for me, given the rest of the Q.
Apr 3, 2019 at 8:50 comment added d-b The law doen't say it but in practice, for something to be defamation, it has to be spread among a reasonable large pool of people. For obvious reason, it would be ridiculous if you talked to your partner and said that someone is an idiot and that would be a criminal act.
Apr 3, 2019 at 8:37 history edited user CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 3, 2019 at 8:23 history answered user CC BY-SA 4.0